Hi Bunuel,
Apologies for the follow-up question and the back and forth. I read the explanation in the links in your original post, but I'm still not 100% tracking. If the inequality is (x-3) (x+1) > 0, why is that any different than when the equation is = 0? I don't understand the reasoning behind changing the ">" sign for the root -1.
Thank you
Hi Bunuel,
I solved the question in the same manner as you did; however, the only difference
t;>" sign
...
Apologies for the follow-up question and the back and forth. I read the explanation in the links in your original post, but I'm still not 100% tracking. If the inequality is (x-3) (x+1) > 0, why is that any different than when the equation is = 0? I don't understand the reasoning behind changing the ">" sign for the root -1.
Thank you
Bunuel wrote:
Gmatstudent2018 wrote:
Hi Bunuel,
I solved the question in the same manner as you did; however, the only difference
...








